3 responses

  1. Marjorie Gann
    July 17, 2020

    I must disagree with Professor Hicks’s minimization of the role of religion in the abolition movements. If you look at who the abolitionists were, in either Britain or the United States, you’ll find huge numbers of religious individuals; many of them, if you look at their writings, regularly cite the Bible, especially the Hebrew Scriptures, to buttress their antislavery arguments. Abolitionists like Theodore Dwight Weld, for example, cited the Biblical passage “He that stealeth a man and selleth him, or, if he be found in his hand, he shall surely be put to death” (Exodus xxi. 16). Other favorite passages were the story of the selling of Joseph (the title of an antislavery essay by Samuel Sewall, 1700), the prophet Isaiah (“untie the cords of the yoke to let the oppressed go free”). Strikingly, the two strongest abolition movements sprung up in Britain and the UK; the abolitionists were Protestant, not Catholic. Why? Because Protestantism encouraged the reading of the Bible, and the overarching messages of the Hebrew Scriptures imbued abolitionists’ thought. The messages were that all men are created equal (all being descended from Adam and created in God’s image) and that God intervenes in history to free slaves (the Exodus story). Yes, the Bible allowed slavery, but it regulated and limited it to make it more humane; this was a compromise with the necessity of bonded agricultural labour in the Ancient Near East. Yes, proslavery figure also cited scripture. But the abolitionists themselves (even less religious ones, like Frederick Douglass) regularly appealed to the Bible to argue against the legality and morality of slavery. In France, a Catholic country, there was never a popular abolition movement; the French Enlightenment did lead to the abolition of slavery, but Napoleon brought it back to Haiti.

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  2. Maria
    July 28, 2020

    The role of religion had less of an impact on slavery than it could have only because the Church was losing its authority over the masses and economics were becoming more important. I could go on about the role of the Church in the West in ushering in the Scientific Revolution, but that’s not the point of my comment, only for background to the Western development of reason and rationalist thinking which led to the abolitionist movement.

    Slavery was a normal part of ancient life. So what caused it to become something of a moral movement to end it? Does religion play a significant role in it?

    King Charles I of Spain, usually known as Emperor Charles V, was following the example of Louis X of France, who had abolished slavery within the Kingdom of France in 1315. He passed a law which would have abolished colonial slavery in 1542, although this law was not passed in the largest colonial states, and it was not enforced as a result.

    From 1435 to 1890, we have numerous bulls and encyclicals from several popes written to many bishops and the whole Christian faithful condemning both slavery and the slave trade. 

    The date of the first Bull from 1435 is very significant. Nearly 60 years before the Europeans were to find the New World, we already had the papal condemnation of slavery as soon as this crime was discovered in one of the first of the Portuguese geographical discoveries.

    But here was obviously widespread non-acceptance on the part of Catholic clergy and laity.The prevalent attitude of the American hierarchy, with some notable exceptions in both directions, was that many aspects of slavery were evil, but that to change the law would be, practically speaking, a greater evil. It was decided that papal pronouncements against slavery, particularly Gregory XVI’s , did not apply to the institution as it existed in the United States, thus yielding on this issue a sort of Americanized Gallicanism.

    England interpreted that Gregory XVI was condemning only the slave trade and not slavery itself, especially as it existed in the United States. England evidently felt justification for this dissent lay in the episcopal (mis)interpretation of .

    These arguments are not dissimilar to the widespread dissent from the Church’s teachings against slavery by bishops, priests and laity that was common from the 17th to 19th centuries. For the Catholics of the United States—as for Catholics everywhere—there was the consistent, historical teaching of the Church, as presented through Eugene IV. Pius II, Paul III, Gregory XIV, Urban VIII, Innocent XI, Benedict XIV, Pius VII and others.

    For the early 19th century, in the midst of the volatile decades before the Civil War, Gregory XVI issued , with its clear condemnation of both the slave trade and slavery itself.

    Since that Constitution mentioned the documents of the previous pontiffs, it is hard to understand how the American hierarchy was not aware of the consistency of the teaching and its nature.

    All of these teachings, nonetheless, went unknown to the Catholic faithful of the U.S., perhaps through willful ignorance, or were explained away by many of the American bishops and clergy. Thus, we can look to the practice of dissent from the teachings of the Papal Magisterium as a key reason why slavery was not directly opposed by the Church in the United States.

    Perhaps religion gave our ancestors a moral and ethical consideration but it was resisted for a long time due to economic factors and that obviously was the stronger pull than religious considerations.

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    • Stephen Hicks
      July 29, 2020

      Hi Maria:
      Yes, the history of religion on slavery gets more complicated after the 1200s, with several (partial) limitations placed on slavery. The most important obstacle to reform, though, was the Bible itself, both old and new testaments. E.g.,
      Exodus 21:20-21: If a man beats his male or female slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must be punished; but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up after a day or two, since the slave is his property.
      Leviticus 25:44-45: Your male and female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them you may buy slaves. You may also buy some of the temporary residents living among you and members of their clans born in your country, and they will become your property.
      1 Peter 2:13: “Submit yourselves for the Lord’s sake to every authority instituted among men.”
      2:18: “Slaves, submit yourselves to your masters with all respect, not only to those who are good and considerate, but also to those who are harsh.”
      Ephesians 6:5-8: “Slaves, be obedient to them that are your masters according to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in singleness of your heart, as unto Christ.”
      It’s not until well into modernity — with all the intellectual changes that brought — that a significant number of the religious are willing to ignore parts of Scripture and use their own judgment.
      Partly why the laity were often not aware of the anti-slavery arguments is that during the 1800s the Church was putting many anti-slavery tracts on its list of forbidden books.
      Even as late as 1866, the Vatican issued a statement — apparently triggered by the passage of the US 13th Amendment — that “Slavery itself … is not at all contrary to the natural and divine law …”.
      To my understanding, that did not change until the early 20th century.

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