8 responses

  1. Steve D
    October 5, 2012

    Wouldn’t any battle occurring earlier in history automatically have an advantage in terms of importance compared to a battle occurring later, simply because more time has passed for history to have changed because of it?

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  2. Mladen B
    September 17, 2013

    I sent a comment and somehow it mysteriously disappeared. “Moderated”?

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    • Stephen Hicks
      September 17, 2013

      It hasn’t shown up here. Can you re-post it?

      Reply

      • Stephen Hicks
        September 21, 2013

        Thanks for re-posting, Mladen. Regarding your video clip (http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uuslxJFpBuU): Wouldn’t we have the same questions about the rise of Islam? It’s about 1,000 years from Marathon to Muhammad.

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  3. Mladen B
    September 24, 2013

    I am not sufficiently knowledgeable about the systems or chaos theories and certainly wouldn’t know how to apply them to history. In the sense that, had Dienekes sneezed, (especially at that all-important moment) the outcome of the Persian war would have been different. But I guess what Stuart Mills wanted to make a point of is that not everything in history and not every civilization is equally important for what we are today. Even if we can’t really know what would have happened, I think that we could speculate on the basis of what we know did happen in the meantime. If we examine our vocabulary, we will find a huge number of Greek and even greater of Latin words (the latter were taught literacy by bilingual Greeks from Magna Graecia and from there it spread elsewhere too). I tried to illustrate, in my re-post that you still seem to be moderating :), that Persian cultural influence or, rather, cultural influences coming from that same part of the world continued on into the present in spite of the defeat at Marathon, that there is a sort of continuity, even in the 1,000 years you are mentioning. And not only on the European world but on the Middle Eastern and Arab world in particular. As we speak, Muslims are in the West millions more than just ten years ago. We already have “no-go zones” for Non-Muslims in the West where only sharia applies. If the trend continues at this speed, we will soon have full-fledged Islamic Republics, states within states. In the meantime, Christians from the former Ottoman Empire will have to put up with the likes of the President of a world’s superpower for whom Islam is a religion of peace and tolerance. A typical example of ignorance (of what happened or might happen, if history teaches anything). Or just arrogance?

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    • Stephen Hicks
      September 24, 2013

      Thanks for this, Mladen. Good material. I can see in my spam folder that your earlier posts, e.g., to the Islam video, were auto-quarantined. I will see about how to release them.

      Reply

  4. openmindedone
    October 10, 2013

    First of all I apologize in advance for my poor english…

    On 1. Nothing really to add.
    On 2. The Romans admired, respected & systematically studied the Greek civilization in almost all of its aspects. Therefore it’s safe to say that they treated the Greeks much differently than how the Persians would do if they had won the battle of Marathon.
    Greek & Persian civilizations, though both advanced civilizations, didn’t had that much in common.
    So the Romans conquering the Greeks can’t really give us an idea of how it would be if the Persians did that before the Romans.
    Also what I believe is the most important thing in that J.S.Mill’s text you’re quoting is this:
    “The interest of Grecian history is unexhausted and inexhaustible. It is an heroic poem (an amazing thing to say about the history of a nation, that can be explained by his next words), of which the personages are peoples.”
    He sees Greek history as a poem in which the characters, the protagonists are PEOPLES, which is absolutely true. Greek civilization did focus on man in all of its aspects.
    The Persian Empire could never let that delivered that to the word, exactly because it would never allow it to develop, no matter how tolerant it was.
    Allowing the Greeks to develop “a culture of rationality, creativity, innovation, science, and artistry” while under Persian rule, is like getting to bed with a scorpion. No occupier allows its vassals to develop tools that can be used to revolt against his rule.
    And why the Romans did exactly that? I believe I already answered that above. I’ll only add that the Greeks at the point that got conquered by the Romans, were in decline & later probably (if this can be said) felt safe in the arms of an “admirer” of that magnitude. On the contrary, during the 1st Greco-Persian wars & the centuries that followed they were at their best & a very dangerous rival. They most certainly would revolt. It is certain that the Persians would be merciless with the Greeks (& for many other reasons).
    So, it’s more than safe to say that yes the Greek victories against the Persian Empire (& in particular the battle of Marathon) are very important for the reasons that you’ve already described (On 1.).
    Then again this is only my opinion.
    Regards

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  5. mike
    December 11, 2013

    1. Rome was Greek colony. They were part and parcel of western civilization. The Romans got their idea for their republican form of government from the Greeks. Openmindedone is correct, comparing the subjugation of Greece to Rome after the Romans had incorporated every world changing idea they developed would not have the same results as subjugation by a stunted and superstitious empire that worshiped a god king 100 years before Socrates was born.
    2. If you want a better look at what would have happened take a look at what happened to Constantinople after the Turks captured it. The most advanced civilization on earth at the time was destroyed and the region entered a period of moribund theocratic stagnation that continues to this day.

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