4 responses

  1. TDK
    October 3, 2013

    Actually Britain gave the vote to woman over the age of 30 in 1918. Men had the vote at 21 and both sexes had to fulfil a property qualification. In 1928, the property qualification was removed and both men the age equalised.

    Conversely prior to 1832 there was no bar to women voting. The franchise was limited only by a property qualification with the result that single women could and did vote. However, due to the laws on property ownership and marriage, this applied to few women. A single woman would not have had a vote while she lived with her parents, nor when she married. Effectively the only circumstances would be when she became a widow or inherited her father’s estate.

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  2. TDK
    October 3, 2013

    Oops

    “In 1928, the property qualification was removed and the age of eligibility equalised.”

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    • Stephen Hicks
      October 3, 2013

      Thanks for the additional info, TDK. So is it that universal adult suffrage was granted in 1928?

      Reply

  3. Harrison Wintergreen
    October 12, 2024

    Worth mentioning how some US states and territories gave women the right to vote before the 19th Amendment. Wyoming was the first as a territory in 1869 and first as a state in 1890.

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